Talaaq Talaaq Talaaq...

  • Talaaq talaaq talaaq and game is over. One whole life is ruined in a second by just uttering these three words.

    -Is it justice?

    -Why it is so simple and easy for man?

    -Is it Islamic?

    -What does Quran say about it?

  • in shia islam, if a person gives talaaq in state of anger, the talaq is void.

    <div>and if a woman gets talaq, she does not have to marry someone else and get talaq again in order to remarry the person who gave her talaq first.

    <div>i dont understand the logic behind halala. pleasem can someone explain?</div>

  • There is only ONE ISLAM, stay with it.


  • saying that wont make it true

    <div>there are differences and that is a fact</div>

  • it must be your own fact, because it is NOT fact according to Islam (Quran), so why to accept such false 'facts' which do not exist in Deen?

    Delete such terms from you rmind.


  • islam (quran)?

    <div>does that mean islam = quran?</div>

    <div>and if there is just ONE 'version' of islam then what does it say about tallaq? i just told you the shia beliefs, and that is what i consider Islam</div>

    <div>but practically speaking, saying that wont help, there are other sects who'd come up saying that they are true Islam</div>

    <div>and raheb, dont try to behave as if you know everything, dont be so overconfident, and dont tell me what quran says and what it says not... because i m sure u and i too, have a lot to learn about quran and what it says</div>

  • SAR! you understand correct Quran=Islam and nothing else.

    Ok! I undertsand difference between you and me is you are seeing what is there and going out from that, and I which is suppose to be and should be there..........
    I am not claiming anything.......but if I don't tell you right or wrong WHO will tell???? to whom you contact and on whom you will believe?
    It must be someother humen being then why not me?


  • Sar are you young, i.e. lets say under 30?

    I agree with Raheb there is only one Islam, there are diffrences as to interpretation and hence the sects.

    But what Raheb should know that as per Quran the shia version is correct, there is a period of 'idat' before the second and third talaq can be pronounced, and this is to reconcil diffrences, no matter if you say 50 talaq at one time, it would only count as one.The rest is as Sar says.

    Even Zakr Naik admitted so that Hazrat Umer made a mistake in interpretation and he refrenced from the Quran.

  • <cite>Not Possible ha detto:</cite>

    Even Zakr Naik admitted so that Hazrat Umer made a mistake in interpretation and he refrenced from the Quran.

    Which incident are you referring to ?

  • raheb, i do not agree with ur formula ie quran = islam

    ONLY quran doesnt make islam...

    Holy Prophet (saw) said "i am leaving behind two weighty things between you, the Holy Quran and ahl-e-bait"

    may be i was wrong when i said shia islam, i should have said shia beliefs... Islam is just one, i agree, but sects are many, and not all of them are following that ONE complete islam

  • It is Hazrat Umers Interpretation that divore can just be by three talaq. it was Hazrat Umers interpretation that violates the Quran.


  • Well, well, NP, Dr Zakir Naik explained that very well. Now even I have grasped the essence of the divorce system as laid out in the Quran sharif. Thanks for precious video.

  • NP

    Zakir Naik is again speaking without knowledge.

    And Umar Radhi Allah Unhu's decision was to stop the people committing sins or regretful mistakes by saying Talaaq in one go. which is indicative from the following hadiths

    Ibn 'Abbas (Allah be pleased with them) reported that the (pronouncement) of three <span>divorce</span>s

    during the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) and

    that of Abu Bakr and two years of the caliphate of Umar (Allah be

    pleased with him) (was treated) as one. But Umar b. Khattab (Allah be

    pleased with him) said: Verily the people have begun to hasten in the

    matter in which they are required to observe respite. So if we had

    imposed this upon them, and he imposed it upon them.

    <span class="QuranData">(Book #009, Hadith #3491)</span>

    Abu al-Sahba' said to Ibn 'Abbas: Enlighten us with your information whether the three <span>divorce</span>s

    (pronounced at one and the same time) were not treated as one during

    the lifetime of Allah's Messenger (may peace be upon him) and Abu Bakr.

    He said: It was in fact so, but when during the caliphate of 'Umar

    (Allah be pleased with him) people began to pronounce <span>divorce</span> frequently, he allowed them to do so (to treat pronouncements of three <span>divorce</span>s in a single breath as one).

    <span class="QuranData">(Book #009, Hadith #3493)</span>

    So if you say that no Umar was wrong and this is not the Sunnah and blah blah blah then what you do consider about the Talaq said whilst one is in a state of extreme anger ?

    Plus there are a lot of decisions that were taken by Umar Radhi Allah Unhu for eg Taravih that shouldnt be followed then ?

    And he is completely wrong when he says that after a Talaaq a woman can marry again her husband. ie in Ayah 232It was reported that this Ayah was revealed about Maqil bin Yasar Al-Muzani and his sister. Al-Bukhari reported in his Sahih, when he mentioned the Tafsir of this Ayah (2:232), that the husband of the sister of Maqil bin Yasar divorced her. He waited until her Iddah finished and then asked to remarry her, but Maqil refused.

    Oh It is highly advisable for all to listen to the Actual Correct Scholars who reference their knowledge from Quran and Sunnah and explain the evidences as how the Rasool Allah Sallaho Alayhi Wa Sallam explained and how the Sahaba understood and followed.

  • Firstly NNL like a typical Wahabi/Salafi/Deobandi you are blind to the truth of Islam so you have to defend someone without cause

    Secondly...ok so now Zakir Naik doesn’t have knowledge and you do?

    Thirdly Zakir Naik quoted the Quran, If some rule is clearly stated in the Quran then that’s the rule of Allah. Not only was this rule prevalent at the time of Rasool Allah(SAW) who was the last one to receive wahi, this rule was prevalent at the time of Hazrat Abu Bakar and indeed Hazrat Umers first two years. By what right did Hazrat Umer arrogate Allahs clear instructions in Quran and Sunnah? This is very clearly what you guys love stating, i.e. a "biddah"

    Is Hazrat Umers wisdom nawzobiallah greater than Allahs in Quran and Rasool Allahs(SAW) by sunnah?

    as for logic and knowledge, Zakir Naik has his own standing in it, is he not a scholar? are only salafi scholars, scholars? so are we now supposed to take your opinion and your salafi scholars over the Quran?

    typical wahabi you have not seen the entire video and tried to quash clear evidence, and then gone on your own rant about blah blah and something that didn’t make sense at all in the end.

    Plus that Quranic Ayat you refer to that meaning has tried to be doctored with the help of a fabricated hadith so your wahabi/salafi masters can carry on their nefarious Arabic traditions of abusing women....you didn’t even quote the Ayat.

    Besides the funny part is, that you are so used to copy and paste like a typical wahabi that you didn’t notice that this is the very ahadith Zakir Naik refers to and indeed they are making the same case Zakir Naik is making and going against you.

    As for tarviah, that was never farz infact the hadith that relates to tarviah actual points that Rasool Allah(SAW ) frowned upon this collective practice so much that he did not come to pray at masjid e nabwi for three nights and didn’t lead any such congregation, but that is the matter of another topic or thread.

    By the very rules of Quran and Sunnah anyone no matter what their status is, if they create a practice or rule that is against Quran and Sunnah, then that falls in the classical definition of Biddah.

  • in short, NNL is saying that (God forbid) Prophet did a mistake and Hazrat Umer corrected it. that means Hazrat Umer, a common man, not a prophet, a person like you and me, can make alterations in Islam.

    <div>am i right?

    <div>Tallaq is highly discouraged in Islam, that is why Islam emphasizes on reconciliation and peace a lot....</div>


    <div>but if we look at halala, its just contradictory to the idea of love, peace and reconciliation, its like a barrier to remarry and reconcile.... and furthermore, it is another tallaq in itself</div>

  • i would also like to share the incident of ghadir-e-khuum, when the last ayat was revealed after the Prophet(saw)'s sermon. The ayat was about the completion of deen...

    when Allah had revealed the ayat about the COMPLETION, then how can someone make alterations and ammendmends when it was already complete?